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Which option is the main function of Cisco Firepower impact flags?
A. They alert administrators when critical events occur.
B. They highlight known and suspected malicious IP addresses in reports.
C. They correlate data about intrusions and vulnerability.
D. They identify data that the ASA sends to the Firepower module.
A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that wereauthorized using MAB onfour different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features willprevent furtherviolations? (Choose two)
A. DHCP Snooping
B. 802.1AE MacSec
C. Port security
D. IP Device track
E. Dynamic ARP inspection
F. Private VLANs
What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?
A. It allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application canfunction, just not maliciously.
B. It discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company’s corporate environment.
C. It deletes any application that does not belong in the network.
D. It sends the application information to an administrator to act on.
Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)
A. Port
B. Rule
C. Source
D. Application
E. Protocol
Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)
A. transparent mode
B. routed mode
C. inline mode
D. active mode
E. passive monitor-only mode
What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection and Response?
A. EPP focuses on prevention, and EDR focuses on advanced threats that evadeperimeter defenses.
B. EDR focuses on prevention, and EPP focuses on advanced threats that evadeperimeter defenses.
C. EPP focuses on network security, and EDR focuses on device security.
D. D. EDR focuses on network security, and EPP focuses on device security.
Which function is the primary function of Cisco AMP threat Grid?
A. automated email encryption
B. applying a real-time URI blacklist
C. automated malware analysis
D. monitoring network traffic
Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next GenerationIntrusion Prevention System?
A. Security Intelligence
B. Impact Flags
C. Health Monitoring
D. URL Filtering
Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)
A. DHCP
B. Design
C. Accounting
D. DNS
E. Provision
Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two)
A. put
B. options
C. get
D. push
E. connect
An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL injection while machine 2 is vulnerable to buffer overflows. What action would allow the attacker to gain access to machine 1 but not machine 2?
A. sniffing the packets between the two hosts
B. sending continuous pings
C. overflowing the buffer’s memory
D. inserting malicious commands into the database
Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two)
A. It can handle explicit HTTP requests.
B. It requires a PAC file for the client web browser.
C. It requires a proxy for the client web browser.
D. WCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.
E. Layer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next GenerationIntrusion Prevention System?
A. Correlation
B. Intrusion
C. Access Control
D. Network Discovery
Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that trafficis being routedthrough the Cisco Umbrella network. Which action tests the routing?
A. Ensure that the client computers are pointing to the on-premises DNS servers.
B. Enable the Intelligent Proxy to validate that traffic is being routed correctly.
C. Add the public IP address that the client computers are behind to a Core Identity.
D. Browse to http://welcome.umbrella.com/ to validate that the new identity is working.
Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?
A. aaa server radius dynamic-author
B. aaa new-model
C. auth-type all
D. ip device-tracking
Which API is used for Content Security?
A. NX-OS API
B. IOS XR API
C. OpenVuln API
D. AsyncOS API
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x pae authenticator
C. authentication port-control aut
D. aaa new-model
A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?
A. Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hostA.
B. Enter the command with a different password on hostB.
C. Enter the same command on hostB.
D. Change the password on hostA to the default password.
What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?
A. data loss prevention
B. controls malicious cloud apps
C. detects anomalies
D. user and entity behavior analytics
Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?
A. AMP
B. AnyConnect
C. DynDNS
D. Talos
Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Identity Services Engine? (Choose two)
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. DHCP
D. sFlow
E. SMTP
Elliptic curve cryptography is a stronger more efficient cryptography method meant toreplace which current encryption technology?
A. 3DES
B. RSA
C. DES
D. AES
An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10. What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?
A. Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
B. Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
C. Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled
For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two)
A. Windows service
B. computer identity
C. user identity
D. Windows firewall
E. default browserAnswer: A,D
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
A. WSA
B. Firepower
C. FireSIGHT
D. ASA
What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?
A. Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holdsa C-level role.
B. A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.
C. Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.
D. Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirectsthe user to a false webpage.
Which CLI command is used to register a Cisco FirePower sensor to Firepower Management Center?
A. configure system add <host><key>
B. configure manager <key> add host
C. configure manager delete
D. configure manager add <host><key
Which IPS engine detects ARP spoofing?
A. Atomic ARP Engine
B. Service Generic Engine
C. ARP Inspection Engine
D. AIC Engine
Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?
A. RBAC
B. ETHOS detection engine
C. SPERO detection engine
D. TETRA detection engine
In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?
A. Smurf
B. distributed denial of service
C. cross-site scripting
D. rootkit exploit
What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two)
A. biometric factor
B. time factor
C. confidentiality factor
D. knowledge factor
E. encryption factor